Question 1 

1. Claudia, a legal assistant, has      been vested by her employer after having worked with the employer for ten      years. This implies that _____.

  

a.

she can transfer her   entire pension fund balances to a new employer’s plan if she moves to a new   company

 

b.

she will receive the   funds her employer has contributed to the retirement plan only if she is a   member of the company while retiring

 

c.

she will receive the   maximum amount of pension available under her company’s retirement plan when   she retires

 

d.

she will receive the amounts   contributed by both the employer and herself when she retires

2 points   

Question 2 

1. According to the Patient      Protection and Affordable Care Act, enrollment in health coverage is      mandatory for every citizen.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 3 

1. Workers cannot be asked to make      financial contributions for coverage under workers’ compensation programs.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 4 

1. Which of the following is a      legally-required employee benefit that employers must provide?

  

a.

Unemployment compensation

 

b.

Public-service leave

 

c.

Education assistance

 

d.

Wellness programs

2 points   

Question 5 

1. The Health Insurance Portability      and Accountability Act (HIPAA) _____.

  

a.

requires employers to   offer health coverage to contingent workers if the workers pay 50% of the   employer’s cost

 

b.

states that employers   must offer extended health care coverage to employees even after they leave   the organization

 

c.

requires employers with   more than 50 employees to provide medical insurance for all full-time   employees

 

d.

allows employees to   switch health insurance from one company to another to get new health   coverage, regardless of preexisting conditions

2 points   

Question 6 

1. Kenneth, a programmer in the      customer service department, took _____ when his father died.

  

a.

paternity leave

 

b.

bereavement leave

 

c.

sick leave

 

d.

jury leave

2 points   

Question 7 

1. An employee who is out of work and      actively looking for employment can receive up to 26 weeks of pay through      unemployment compensation.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 8 

1. The Worker Adjustment and      Retraining Notification Act (WARN) of 1988 _____.

  

a.

requires employers to   give 30 days’ notice of mass layoff or plant closings

 

b.

mandates the payment of   severance pay to employees

 

c.

requires employers to   give 20 days’ notice of mass layoff or plant closings

 

d.

does not mandate the   payment of severance pay to employees

2 points   

Question 9 

1. Increases in employer expenditures      for benefits are growing faster than increases in wages for employees.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 10 

1. Which of the following statements      is true of part-time employees?

  

a.

Most employers in the   United States do not provide any part-time employee benefits, except some   paid time off.

 

b.

Part-time employees   typically make no effort to attain benefits because they are covered by their   spouse’s or parents’ insurance policies.

 

c.

Anti-discrimination laws   enable part-time employees to receive the same benefits as full-time   employees are offered.

 

d.

Most employers provide   part-time employees medical benefits, but no time-off benefits because these   employees already work on a short schedule.

2 points   

Question 11 

1. OSHA rules and standards are      frequently complicated and technical, which makes it difficult for      managers who do not have specialists on their staffs to read and      understand the rules.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 12 

1. The Occupational Safety and Health      Review Commission (OSHRC) has been established to address disputes between      OSHA and employers that have been cited by OSHA inspectors.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 13 

1. Emotional illnesses such as      schizophrenia and depression are considered disabilities under the ADA.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 14 

1. The Occupational Safety and Health      Act provides for on-the-spot inspections by OSHA representatives

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 15 

1. Which of the following statements      is true of disaster planning?

  

a.

Conducting simulations is   a mandatory part of organizational assessment in disaster planning.

 

b.

Having backup databases   is a key consideration of human impact planning.

 

c.

Disaster training is   usually conducted by the OSHA’s compliance inspectors.

 

d.

Terrorism is generally   not considered in disaster plans since it is not a natural calamity.

2 points   

Question 16 

1. Which of the following is      considered a safe job for workers under the age of 18 years?

  

a.

Cab driving

 

b.

Excavation operations

 

c.

Roofing operations

 

d.

Newspaper delivery

2 points   

Question 17 

1. Sam, a product development      manager, and his team are in the process of designing ergonomic desks that      would help the employees in their organization work effectively without      any discomfort or physical ailments. Which of the following approaches is      being used by Sam’s organization for safety management?

  

a.

The individual approach

 

b.

The systems approach

 

c.

The organizational   approach

 

d.

The engineering approach

2 points   

Question 18 

1. Which of the following is an      immeasurable cost associated with accidents in an organization?

  

a.

Reduced work group   efficiency

 

b.

Negative influence on   employees’ group morale

 

c.

Damage to work equipment

 

d.

Time lost because of   faulty or offline equipment

2 points   

Question 19 

1. Concerns regarding pandemic      diseases have led OSHA to establish special guidelines for the poultry      production industry because of the _____.

  

a.

number of employees   working in this industry

 

b.

high rate of violence   among the workers

 

c.

industry’s contribution   to the import business

 

d.

high vulnerability of the   employees of this industry

2 points   

Question 20 

1. The provision of restricted-duty      work to disabled people is an attempt by the ADA to increase the rate of      employment among the disabled in the United States.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 21 

1. Rachel manages a team of ten      designers in an advertising agency. She encourages all her subordinates to      directly approach her and speak with her at any time of the day regarding      issues they may be facing at work. On the basis of the given information,      we can conclude that Rachel _____.

  

a.

has established an   arbitration system

 

b.

acts as an ombudsman in   her company

 

c.

encourages external   whistle-blowing

 

d.

practices an open-door   policy

2 points   

Question 22 

1. Discipline is a process of      corrective action that enforces organizational rules.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 23 

1. Employers should avoid informing      employees if employee activities are being monitored so as to attain      undiluted results.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 24 

1. An agreement in which an employee      who is being terminated agrees not to sue the employer in exchange for      specific benefits is called a _____.

  

a.

non-enforceable contract   made under duress

 

b.

severance contract

 

c.

yellow-dog contract

 

d.

separation agreement

2 points   

Question 25 

1. The final stage of both the      progressive and the positive approaches to discipline is _____.

  

a.

termination

 

b.

suspension

 

c.

mediation

 

d.

counseling

2 points   

Question 26 

1. Organizational newsletters,      company magazines, and email announcements are examples of upward      communication within a company.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 27 

1. Which of the following is true of      the rights of an employee?

  

a.

For the rights of an   employee to exist, they must be contained in a formal employment contract   that the employee has signed.

 

b.

For the rights of an   employee to exist, they must be spelled out at the time of appointment.

 

c.

Moral rights of the   employees are typically the result of specific laws or statutes passed by   federal, state, or local governments.

 

d.

An employee’s contractual   rights are based on a specific contract with an employer.

2 points   

Question 28 

1. Claudia, when selected as a senior      engineer by her company, is promised that she would start working on live      projects within three months from her joining date. She signs a contract      stating that she would give three months’ notice before quitting the job.      Which of the following statements is true of the given scenario?

  

a.

Claudia has an implied   contract with the company.

 

b.

The supervisor cannot be   challenged in a court.

 

c.

The supervisor has   violated an employment law by making a promise.

 

d.

Claudia is an at-will   employee.

2 points   

Question 29 

1. The Privacy Act of      1974 applies only to federal agencies and to organizations      supplying services to the federal government.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 30 

1. _____ typically provide specific      customary methods to employers for handling activities.

  

a.

Procedures

 

b.

Yellow-dog contracts

 

c.

Code of conduct

 

d.

Policies

2 points   

Question 31 

1. During a contract negotiation, the      management of RMS, Inc. and its employee union fail to reach an agreement      on an issue related to night shift pay scales. A neutral third party is      called in to actively work with both sides and help them reach a      settlement. This party suggests several ideas that could help in solving      the issue. The process used by the third party in the given scenario is      referred to as _____.

  

a.

conciliation

 

b.

mediation

 

c.

fact-finding

 

d.

arbitration

2 points   

Question 32 

1. The Landrum-Griffin Act appointed      the U.S. Secretary of Labor to act as a watchdog of union conduct.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 33 

1. It is common for wages and      benefits to be higher in unionized firms.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 34 

1. If a grievance is not settled by      artibration, the grievance procedure requires the grievant to file the      grievance with a federal court.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 35 

1. Which of the following statements      is true of the wages of employees in the United States?

  

a.

Union workers frequently   get compensated better in terms of pay than do nonunion workers.

 

b.

The wages paid to union   and nonunion members differ in the private sector.

 

c.

Union members always   receive more benefits than nonunion employees.

 

d.

Union wages equaled   nonunion wages only after the global recession of 2009.

2 points   

Question 36 

1. A(n) _____ is a formal association      of workers that promotes the interests of its members primarily through      collective action.

  

a.

trade fair

 

b.

union

 

c.

employment contract

 

d.

cartel

2 points   

Question 37 

1. The relationship between a union      and a company’s management in the United States alternates between      accommodation and collusion.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 38 

1. Which of the following is an      advantage of union representation in organizations?

  

a.

High productivity due to   increasing compensation

 

b.

Consistent increase in   profitability of organizations

 

c.

Efficient allocation of   organizational resources

 

d.

Opportunity to provide   feedback to employers

2 points   

Question 39 

1. The practice of salting, which      refers to paying union members to infiltrate an employer and organize      workers, is a violation of the Wagner Act.

True 

False 

2 points   

Question 40 

1. After a series of failed      negotiations with its union, Sinclair Processing Inc. shuts down its      manufacturing unit in order to prevent union members from working.      Sinclair Processing is using a _____ to put pressure on the union.

  

a.

pre-emptive strike

 

b.

vandalism

 

c.

lockout

 

d.

counter strike

Question 1 (5 points)

 

When services are rendered but payment is not made, which account would be increased?

Question 1 options:

accounts receivable

accounts payable

cash

withdrawal

Question 2 (5 points)

 

Go Blue Retail Store collected $12,000 of its accounts receivable. The expanded accounting equation changes include __________.

Question 2 options:

cash and capital increase, $12,000

cash and revenue increase, $12,000

cash increases and accounts receivable decreases $12,000

accounts receivable decreases and capital increases $12,000

Question 3 (5 points)

 

A company has the following balances in its asset accounts: Cash, $750; Accounts Receivable, $125; Equipment, $2,000; Supplies, $875. The amount of the company’s total assets is __________.

Question 3 options:

$875

$1,750

$2,875

$3,750

Question 4 (5 points)

 

An accounting report that shows the changes in capital during the accounting period is __________.

Question 4 options:

a balance sheet

an income statement

a statement of owner’s equity

All of these answers are correct.

Question 5 (5 points)

 

Which of the following transactions has no effect on owner’s equity?

Question 5 options:

paying salaries expense

equipment purchase

billing for services rendered

a withdrawal

Question 6 (5 points)

 

The increase or decrease in the owner’s equity is reported on the __________.

Question 6 options:

income statement

statement of owner’s equity

balance sheet

All of these answers are correct.

Question 7 (5 points)

 

The payment of accounts payable would __________.

Question 7 options:

increase both assets and liabilities

increase assets and decrease liabilities

decrease both assets and liabilities

decrease assets and increase liabilities

Question 8 (5 points)

 

Ryan withdrew cash from the business to pay his personal cell phone bill. The expanded accounting equation changes include __________.

Question 8 options:

increase in both cash and withdrawal

decrease in both cash and withdrawal

decrease in cash and increase in withdrawal

increase in cash and decrease in withdrawal

Question 9 (5 points)

 

The financial statement that shows revenue and expenses for a period of time is the __________.

Question 9 options:

balance sheet

income statement

statement of owner’s equity

statement of cash flows

Question 10 (5 points)

 

A company has $4,500 in its Revenue account at the end of a period. The Expenses are as follows: Rent, $750; Utilities, $150; Salaries, $2,400; Insurance, $225. The net income (loss. for the period is __________.

Question 10 options:

$3,600

($2,100.

$975

($1,425.

Question 11 (5 points)

 

Carrie billed her legal clients $6,000 for legal work completed during the month. This transaction will __________.

Question 11 options:

cause a $6,000 increase in revenues and liabilities

cause a $6,000 increase in revenues and a decrease in liabilities

cause a $6,000 increase in assets and revenues

not be recorded until the cash is collected

Question 12 (5 points)

 

Which of the following is not one of the four basic financial statements?

Question 12 options:

Statement of Cash Flows

Income Statement

Statement of Company Position

Balance Sheet

Question 13 (5 points)

 

The net income or net loss is calculated on the __________.

Question 13 options:

balance sheet

statement of owner’s equity

income statement

None of the above answers are correct.

Question 14 (5 points)

 

The statement of owner’s equity contains the __________.

Question 14 options:

owner’s capital for the beginning of the period

liabilities of the company

total amount owed by credit customers

balance in the cash account

Question 15 (5 points)

 

The financial statement that shows business results in terms of revenue and expenses is __________.

Question 15 options:

an income statement

a balance sheet

a statement of owner’s equity

the statement of cash flows

Question 16 (5 points)

 

Which of the following statements is prepared first?

Question 16 options:

Statement of Owner’s Equity

Balance Sheet

Income Statement

None of the above

Question 17 (5 points)

 

An expense should be recorded when __________.

Question 17 options:

the bill is paid

the expense is incurred

a bill is received in the mail

None of the above answers are correct.

Question 18 (5 points)

 

If ‘Ol Fashioned Toys’ revenues are less than its expenses during the accounting period, then __________.

Question 18 options:

owner’s withdrawals decrease net income

net income causes liabilities to decrease

the business will incur a loss

owner’s withdrawals increase owner’s equity

Question 19 (5 points)

 

If a company’s revenues are higher than its expenses, it will cause __________.

Question 19 options:

an increase in owner’s equity

a decrease in owner’s equity

an increase in assets

no effect on owner’s equity

Question 20 (5 points)

 

BPK Industries has a net income for the period of $2,500. The balance in the Owner’s Capital account for the beginning of the period is $5,000 and the owner has withdrawn $1,650 for personal expenses. The balance in the Owner’s Capital account at the end of the period will be __________.

Question 20 options:

$5,850

$7,500

$850

$9,150

**This should be in complete APA format and at least 400 words**

A communication event analysis paper focuses on meaningful communication activity, describes it, and analyzes it using a relevant theory or set of theories.  The “event” is a communication episode that involves significant interpersonal communication activity. The interpersonal event can be real or one presented via mediated communication, such as film or television.

The paper should include the following:

1.  A summary description of the event, i.e., what, when, how the event happened, who was involved, and other pertinent descriptive information (e.g., where it appeared or occurred).

2.  Presentation and description of an interpersonal theory from the weekly readings that will be used to analyze the communication event, as well as a rationale (explanation) for using the theory. (Textbook link is below)

3.  Application of the theory to the event, in other words, analysis of the event using the theory or theories.  A good theoretical analysis of a communication event should provide insights into that event that description alone cannot.

4.  Evaluation of the theory’s or theories’ usefulness in understanding the communication event.

5. The discussion should introduce communication concepts from a theory appropriate for analyzing the event and then apply those concepts.  For example, a communication incident might be meaningfully understood via small group theories and concepts (groupthink, coalitions), interpersonal theories and concepts (compliance-gaining, self-disclosure), organizational theories and concepts (culture, climate), and so on.  This analysis should be specific (rather than generic), thus demonstrating your ability to interpret communication activity in terms of pertinent interpersonal communication theories and concepts.

*No outside sources are to be used. Use only theories from the text in chapters 1 through 3.**

**Textbook PDF is attached**

Understanding the facets of an audience and how to meet its needs is critical for technical writers. For example, writers would develop a technical document much differently for a team of scientists than they would for an audience without a background in the same subject matter. In preparation for your contributions to the course discussion on audience, read pages 41-42, 84-101, and 114. Then, explain why it is important to identify the target audience of a document or presentation. Finally, describe at least four techniques that you would use to learn about your audience.

Your initial post should be at least 250 words in length. Support your claims with examples from required material(s) and/or other scholarly resources, and properly cite any references.

PLEASE MAKE SURE TO ANSWER ALL PARTS OF THE ASSIGNMENT

Assignment Steps 

Resource: Human Resource Management: Ch. 11; Supplemental Resources.

https://www.bls.gov

Review the “Application Case Salary Inequities at Astra Zeneca” (page 379 of Human Resource Management). 

Develop a 1,050-word report including:

• Discuss questions 11-13, 11-14, and 11-15.

Week 3 Questions
AstraZeneca has brought you in as a compensation consultant. Here are the questions they would like you to answer for them: 
11-13. Although the case with OFCCP is closed, we wonder if there are any less discriminatory explanations possible for why our women sales reps on average earned less than men. If so, what are they? 
11-14. Our own company now uses a point method to evaluate jobs for pay purposes, and each resulting job class also has a rate range associated with it. Sales associates are now paid a salary that is not based on incentive pay. List three specific things we can do to ensure that a similar problem (inequitable pay based on gender) does not arise again, assuming they continue using the point plan. 

11-15. What sort of compensation plan would you recommend for us, and why?

• Summarize the answers to each of the questions.
• Analyze current job market compensation plans and pay scales in comparison to Astra Zeneca.
• Explain how team members will use lessons learned. 

Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.